可以介绍一下ACCA是什么吗？

发布时间：2021-04-23

可以介绍一下ACCA是什么吗？

最佳答案

ACCA是一张培养人的证书，而CPA更像是一张高端执照，只有考出了你才能在特定行业走得更远。只是考这张证你必须要会书里讲的知识并且会运用而已。ACCA也是一门国际化的证书，但是它包含了管理会计、财务会计、税法、商法、战略等方面的知识，

下面小编为大家准备了 ACCA考试的相关考题，供大家学习参考。

company. On 1 January 2007, Router sold a 15% holding in Wireless thus reducing its investment to a 10%

holding. Router no longer exercises significant influence over Wireless. Before the sale of the shares the net asset

value of Wireless on 1 January 2007 was $200 million and goodwill relating to the acquisition of Wireless was

$5 million. Router received $40 million for its sale of the 15% holding in Wireless. At 1 January 2007, the fair

value of the remaining investment in Wireless was $23 million and at 31 May 2007 the fair value was

$26 million. (6 marks)

Required:

Discuss how the above items should be dealt with in the group financial statements of Router for the year ended

31 May 2007.Required:

Discuss how the above items should be dealt with in the group financial statements of Router for the year ended

31 May 2007.

正确答案：
(c) The investment in Wireless is currently accounted for using the equity method of accounting under IAS28 ‘Investments in
Associates’. On the sale of a 15% holding, the investment in Wireless will be accounted for in accordance with IAS39. Router
should recognise a gain on the sale of the holding in Wireless of $7 million (Working 1). The gain comprises the following:
(i) the difference between the sale proceeds and the proportion of the net assets sold and
(ii) the goodwill disposed of.
The total gain is shown in the income statement.
The remaining 10 per cent investment will be classified as an ‘available for sale’ financial asset or at ‘fair value through profit
or loss’ financial asset. Changes in fair value for these categories are reported in equity or in the income statement respectively.
At 1 January 2007, the investment will be recorded at fair value and a gain of $1 million $(23 – 22) recorded. At 31 May
2007 a further gain of $(26 – 23) million, i.e. $3 million will be recorded. In order for the investment to be categorised as
at fair value through profit or loss, certain conditions have to be fulfilled. An entity may use this designation when doing so
results in more relevant information by eliminating or significantly reducing a measurement or recognition inconsistency (an
‘accounting mismatch’) or where a group of financial assets and/or financial liabilities is managed and its performance is
evaluated on a fair value basis, in accordance with a documented risk management or investment strategy, and information
about the assets and/ or liabilities is provided internally to the entity’s key management personnel.

(b) Misson has purchased goods from a foreign supplier for 8 million euros on 31 July 2006. At 31 October 2006,

the trade payable was still outstanding and the goods were still held by Misson. Similarly Misson has sold goods

to a foreign customer for 4 million euros on 31 July 2006 and it received payment for the goods in euros on

31 October 2006. Additionally Misson had purchased an investment property on 1 November 2005 for

28 million euros. At 31 October 2006, the investment property had a fair value of 24 million euros. The company

uses the fair value model in accounting for investment properties.

Misson would like advice on how to treat these transactions in the financial statements for the year ended 31

October 2006. (7 marks)

Required:

Discuss the accounting treatment of the above transactions in accordance with the advice required by the

directors.

(Candidates should show detailed workings as well as a discussion of the accounting treatment used.)

正确答案：
(b) Inventory, Goods sold and Investment property
The inventory and trade payable initially would be recorded at 8 million euros ÷ 1·6, i.e. $5 million. At the year end, the
amount payable is still outstanding and is retranslated at 1 dollar = 1·3 euros, i.e. $6·2 million. An exchange loss of
$(6·2 – 5) million, i.e. $1·2 million would be reported in profit or loss. The inventory would be recorded at $5 million at the
year end unless it is impaired in value.
The sale of goods would be recorded at 4 million euros ÷ 1·6, i.e. $2·5 million as a sale and as a trade receivable. Payment
is received on 31 October 2006 in euros and the actual value of euros received will be 4 million euros ÷ 1·3,
i.e. $3·1 million.
Thus a gain on exchange of $0·6 million will be reported in profit or loss.
The investment property should be recognised on 1 November 2005 at 28 million euros ÷ 1·4, i.e. $20 million. At
31 October 2006, the property should be recognised at 24 million euros ÷ 1·3, i.e. $18·5 million. The decrease in fair value
should be recognised in profit and loss as a loss on investment property. The property is a non-monetary asset and any foreign
currency element is not recognised separately. When a gain or loss on a non-monetary item is recognised in profit or loss,
any exchange component of that gain or loss is also recognised in profit or loss. If any gain or loss is recognised in equity ona non-monetary asset, any exchange gain is also recognised in equity.

2 The Information Technology division (IT) of the RJ Business Consulting Group provides consulting services to its

clients as well as to other divisions within the group. Consultants always work in teams of two on every consulting

day. Each consulting day is charged to external clients at ￡750 which represents cost plus 150% profit mark up. The

total cost per consulting day has been estimated as being 80% variable and 20% fixed.

The director of the Human Resources (HR) division of RJ Business Consulting Group has requested the services of

two teams of consultants from the IT division on five days per week for a period of 48 weeks, and has suggested that

she meets with the director of the IT division in order to negotiate a transfer price. The director of the IT division has

responded by stating that he is aware of the limitations of using negotiated transfer prices and intends to charge the

HR division ￡750 per consulting day.

The IT division always uses ‘state of the art’ video-conferencing equipment on all internal consultations which would

reduce the variable costs by ￡50 per consulting day. Note: this equipment can only be used when providing internal

consultations.

Required:

(a) Calculate and discuss the transfer prices per consulting day at which the IT division should provide

consulting services to the HR division in order to ensure that the profit of the RJ Business Consulting Group

is maximised in each of the following situations:

(i) Every pair of consultants in the IT division is 100% utilised during the required 48-week period in

providing consulting services to external clients, i.e. there is no spare capacity.

(ii) There is one team of consultants who, being free from other commitments, would be available to

undertake the provision of services to the HR division during the required 48-week period. All other

teams of consultants would be 100% utilised in providing consulting services to external clients.

(iii) A major client has offered to pay the IT division ￡264,000 for the services of two teams of consultants

during the required 48-week period.

(12 marks)

正确答案：
(a) (i) The transfer price of ￡750 proposed by the IT division is based on cost plus 150% from which it can be deduced that
the total cost of a consulting day is (100/250) x ￡750 = ￡300. This comprises ￡240 (80%) variable cost and ￡60
(20%) fixed cost. In this instance the transfer price should be set at marginal costs plus opportunity cost. It is assumed
in this situation that transferring internally would result in the IT division having a lost contribution of ￡750 – ￡240 =
￡510 per consulting day. The marginal cost of the transfer of services to the HR division is ￡190 (￡240 external variable
costs less ￡50 saving due to use of internal video-conferencing equipment). Adding the opportunity cost of ￡510 gives
a transfer price of ￡700 per consulting day. This is equivalent to using market price as a basis for transfer pricing where
the transfer price is set at the external market price (￡750) less any costs avoided (￡50) by transferring internally.
(ii) There is in effect no external market available for one of the required pairs of consultants within the IT division and
therefore opportunity cost will not apply and transfers should be made at the variable cost per consulting day of ￡190.
The other pair of consultants, who would otherwise be 100% utilised in providing consulting services to external clients,
should be charged at a rate of ￡700 per day which represents marginal cost plus opportunity cost.
(iii) The lost contribution from the major client amounts to ￡264,000/(2 x 240) = ￡550 less variable costs of ￡240 =
￡310 per consulting day. Thus, in this instance the transfer price should be the contribution foregone of ￡310 plus
internal variable costs of ￡190 making a total of ￡500 per consulting day.

4 (a) Explain the meaning of the term ‘working capital cycle’ for a trading company. (4 marks)

正确答案：
(a) The working capital cycle illustrates the changing make-up of working capital in the course of the trading operations of a
business:
1 Purchases are made on credit and the goods go into inventory.
2 Inventory is sold and converted into receivables
3 Credit customers pay their accounts
4 Cash is used to pay suppliers.

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可以介绍一下ACCA是什么吗？

最佳答案

下面小编为大家准备了 ACCA考试 的相关考题，供大家学习参考。

下面小编为大家准备了 ACCA考试的相关考题，供大家学习参考。